From a purely pragmatic perspective, is it a good idea to have a large body of vital law and principles committed to memory and not to writing?
The believers in the oral law claim that an Oral law was given to Moses and not written down. They then argue that it was transmitted /taught orally for another 1500 years or so. The excuse they give for it to be written down is:
"In the lifetime of Rabbi Yehuda Hanasi (around 1700 years ago), Roman
persecution, the recent destruction of the second Temple and the
disruption of stable Jewish community life threatened our ability to
properly retain and transmit this oral law. Rabbi Yehuda, therefore,
wrote down the bare basics in the Mishna.
A couple of centuries of hardship and persecution later, the rabbis of
Babylonia saw a need to record even more detail and compiled a written
version of what is known as the Talmud"
https://torah.org/learning/basics-primer-torah-oraltorah/
It seems to be a very inefficient system and design. Why would this section be given in oral form originally, if it was inevitable for it to be written down?
And what is unique about the the hardship of Roman persecution? There was persecution even before the Romans, and there was the destruction of the First Temple. In First Temple times, there were many periods of idolatry, when even the Written law was lost or forgotten. how could the oral law be remembered then? And if it existed, why wasn't it written down in those times?
So the form of oral transmission is really not a good idea. it is impossible to verbally remember a mass of information the size of the Talmud. If there was no written format, then even a photographic memory would not suffice. So it follows that not only is it a bad idea, it was impossible to implement.
A rational (and respectful) look at Judaism, the Torah, and the Old Testament. Oral Law; TanaKh. Debate between Karaites and Orthodox Rabbis.
Sunday, 29 July 2018
Friday, 27 July 2018
Aryeh Kaplan's False Translation
The late Aryeh Kaplan was quite poplar in his time, an he even wrote a Translation of the Torah. However, this would be better described as a mistranslation. He consistently misrepresented what is written in the Torah, and instead puts down false statements that suit his own goals.
One example is in this article he wrote about the Oral Law.
http://www.aish.com/jl/b/ol/48943186.html
He alleges "If I would have written the majority of my Torah, [Israel] would be counted the same as strangers" (Hosea 8:12).
However, this is not what Hoshea wrote or said.
The plain translation is given on Mechon mamre:
יב אכתוב- (אֶכְתָּב-) לוֹ--רבו (רֻבֵּי), תּוֹרָתִי: כְּמוֹ-זָר, נֶחְשָׁבוּ. 12 Though I write for him never so many things of My Law, they are accounted as a stranger's.
The Law was written, containing so many things, but still considered as "foreign" - because the sinners in Israel and Ephraim had taken to false gods.
This in no way is alluding to the existence or necessity of a an oral law, quite the opposite. It is attesting to the fullness and completeness of the written law, which is still rejected, by the idolaters, and perhaps also by those who feel it is incomplete.
One example is in this article he wrote about the Oral Law.
http://www.aish.com/jl/b/ol/48943186.html
He alleges "If I would have written the majority of my Torah, [Israel] would be counted the same as strangers" (Hosea 8:12).
However, this is not what Hoshea wrote or said.
The plain translation is given on Mechon mamre:
יב אכתוב- (אֶכְתָּב-) לוֹ--רבו (רֻבֵּי), תּוֹרָתִי: כְּמוֹ-זָר, נֶחְשָׁבוּ. 12 Though I write for him never so many things of My Law, they are accounted as a stranger's.
The Law was written, containing so many things, but still considered as "foreign" - because the sinners in Israel and Ephraim had taken to false gods.
This in no way is alluding to the existence or necessity of a an oral law, quite the opposite. It is attesting to the fullness and completeness of the written law, which is still rejected, by the idolaters, and perhaps also by those who feel it is incomplete.
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