Tuesday, 1 July 2014

The Law of Moses


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 Deut 31:

  9 And Moses wrote this law, and delivered it unto the priests the sons of Levi, that bore the ark of the covenant of the LORD, and unto all the elders of Israel. 10 And Moses commanded them, saying: 'At the end of every seven years, in the set time of the year of release, in the feast of tabernacles, 11 when all Israel is come to appear before the LORD thy God in the place which He shall choose, thou shalt read this law before all Israel in their hearing. 12 Assemble the people, the men and the women and the little ones, and thy stranger that is within thy gates, that they may hear, and that they may learn, and fear the LORD your God, and observe to do all the words of this law; 13 and that their children, who have not known, may hear, and learn to fear the LORD your God, as long as ye live in the land whither ye go over the Jordan to possess it.'



It is important to know that the Torah was always a written document, and was preserved in writing not in oral form. Also, had there been any alleged Oral Law, it would be mentioned here. However, the Law was taught as a reading from the Torah, as per v. 12-13. They would learn and observe to do all the words of the Written law which was read by the Priests.  

In the above verses, the Written Torah is referred to as הַתּוֹרָה הַזֹּאת  - this Law.    It is also this Law which is to be observed. throughout the Torah it is referring to "this Law"  i.e. the Written Torah.   The reason being that there never was another law, ie Oral Law.

3 comments:

  1. Why would it be said "this" (Law) if there was only one, and not "the" Law?

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  2. It says "thou shalt read this law " and it says "do all the words of this law".

    Your question reminds me of Rambam's attack on Christianity , where they claim the Shema implies more than One god! Your claim has the same validity as those who see a Trinity in the Shema.

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  3. The anonymous commenter uses the arguments (sophistry) of medieval rabbis, which is totally illogical.
    In 2 Chron 6, it says:
    29 what prayer and supplication soever be made by any man, or by all Thy people Israel, who shall know every man his own plague and his own pain, and shall spread forth his hands toward this house;

    "this house" meaning the Temple in Jerusalem. Presumably the same rabbis infer that you can pray towards Mecca or Rome, since This house does not exclude alien houses.

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