Rabbi Gil
Student has a list of “proofs “ of the oral law, which were concocted Judah HaLevi and Duran, the Rashbatz. Here is another of Duran's claims:
“19. When the Jews returned to Jerusalem with permission
from the Persian government to rebuild the Temple, Haggai tested the priests on
their knowledge of the laws of purity. He asked them the following two
questions [Haggai 2:12-13]: "If a man is carrying a sacrificial flesh in a
fold of his garment, and with that fold touches bread, stew, wine, oil, or any
other food, will the latter become holy?... If someone defiled by a
corpse touches any of these, will it be defiled?" The answers to
these two questions are not in the Torah. How were the priests to know
the answers if not from an oral tradition [Rashbatz, ibid.] ”
There are 2
questions that Haggai – through prophetic instruction - asks the Priests to
test their knowledge. The Priests give
presumably correct answers. 2000 years
later, a well known Rabbi who is not well versed in Hebrew or the Bible alleges that
from knowledge of the Bible alone, the priests would not have been able to
answer these questions, and therefore, he claims, they must have relied on the
Oral Law! With my limited knowledge of
Biblical Hebrew, and limited knowledge of the Bible, I am able to demonstrate that even today
somebody can answer these questions without resort to the Oral Law. Indeed, the
fact that this is possible, is a disproof of the Oral Law, for which we must
thank Rabbi Duran for providing!
Question 1 asks
if holiness of a holy object, such as sacrificial flesh can be transferred to a
neutral item of food, rendering the other item also holy. The Priests say no. There are 3 possible cases for answering this
question.
1) That the Torah also says No.
2) That the Torah says that it can.
3) That the
Torah doesn’t say anything at all on the
transfer of Holiness.
If 1), then we
do not need the Oral law, since somewhere in the Torah it is written.
If 2), then the
priests were wrong, so their view is disqualified. However, there is no evidence of 2) , and
even Duran says there is no statement like this in the Torah.
If 3), i.e. the Torah
doesn’t say it one way or another, then we cannot deduce something that is NOT
said in the Torah. It would be fictional
to imagine that Holiness can be transferred to a neutral object, if there is no
verse attesting to this. So we can
deduce from the lack of a verse, that there is no concept of transfer of
holiness.
That is not the
case for the 2nd question, which deals with the transfer of
impurity. Here, Duran is seriously
mistaken in claiming that the transfer of impurity cannot be sourced in the
Written Torah. He thus demonstrates his own intellectual and moral failure, and
exposes the overall ignorance and dilettantism of the rabbis when it comes to
the field of Bible study.
We see in the
following verses the general case of how impurity of all kinds can be
transferred to a person:
Lev 5
ב אוֹ
נֶפֶשׁ, אֲשֶׁר תִּגַּע בְּכָל-דָּבָר טָמֵא, אוֹ בְנִבְלַת חַיָּה טְמֵאָה אוֹ
בְּנִבְלַת בְּהֵמָה טְמֵאָה, אוֹ בְּנִבְלַת שֶׁרֶץ טָמֵא; וְנֶעְלַם
מִמֶּנּוּ, וְהוּא טָמֵא וְאָשֵׁם.
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2
or if any one touch any unclean thing, whether it be the carcass of an
unclean beast, or the carcass of unclean cattle, or the carcass of unclean
swarming things, and be guilty, it being hidden from him that he is unclean;
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3
or if he touch the uncleanness of man, whatsoever his uncleanness be
wherewith he is unclean, and it be hid from him; and, when he knoweth of it,
be guilty;
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In Numbers we see
the specific case of how impurity of the dead can a) be transferred to a living person. And b)
this newly infected person can transfer the impurity to anything he
touches.
Numbers 19:
11 He
that toucheth the dead, even any man's dead body, shall be unclean seven days;
And
22 And
whatsoever the unclean person toucheth shall be unclean; and the soul that
toucheth him shall be unclean until even.
The Written law is all that the priests required to answer Haggai's questions.
So we now have a
disproof of the Oral Law, and we must now see the various attempts of the
rabbis as actually being further disproof of that which they attempt to prove.
Comments from Hakham Rekhavi:
ReplyDelete"The question placed is not; "Can the holiness of a holy object, such as sacrificial flesh can be transferred to a neutral item of food, rendering the other item also holy?"
But; "If sacrificial flesh is touching a piece of cloth, which in turn is touching other foodstuffs (indirect contact), is the sanctification transferred to the other foodstuff?"
Haggai asks this question because the Tora states that direct contact between foodstuffs does transfer holiness:
A law forever throughout your generations, from the fire-offerings of YHWH; all that touches them shall become holy. (Lev. 6:11)
All that touches its flesh shall become holy. (Lev. 6:20)
But does not mention indirect contact."
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Thanks Meir for clarifying the q1. I think the analysis still holds. the objection is that the question cannot be answered without resort to the Oral law. In fact, the point you make helps refute the Duran objection even more. The flesh is insulated by the cloth. there is no basis in the Torah to say that the cloth can transfer holiness.